Hitachi,HAT-050 Valid Soft Simulations,HAT-050 Valid Study Questions Ebook

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Exam Code: HAT-050
Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Qualified Associate - Storage Concepts
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
HAT-050 Latest Dumps Ppt Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-24,2017

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HAT-050 Edition

NO.1 A customer has some storage requirements for a new application.
Their index data will require the highest level of performance while using very little capacity. Their archive logs will require high capacity with very low performance requirements. Which two storage allocations should you recommend for this new application? (Choose two.)
A. Index data on SAS.
B. Archive logs on SSD.
C. Archive logs on SATA.
D. Index data on SSD.
Answer: C,D

HAT-050 Clear   HAT-050 Torrent  

NO.2 A customer wants to replicate their database for the accounting and finance departments. What is a benefit of accomplishing this with a clone replication technology?
A. It uses less storage than a snapshot copy.
B. It identifies index corruption on the database.
C. It creates an exact copy of the database.
D. It provides continuous data protection.
Answer: C

HAT-050 Exam   HAT-050 Edition  

NO.3 A consulting company would like to automatically invoke movement, retention and disposal of data according to defined rules. Which process should they implement?
A. a policy-based management system
B. a content-based management system
C. an object-based management system
D. a file-based management system
Answer: A

HAT-050 Lead2Pass   HAT-050 Download  

NO.4 What is a Host Bus Adaptor (HBA)?
A. A Fibre Channel interface that connects a computer to a storage network.
B. A non-volatile data storage device.
C. A device that connects multiple computers together to form a network segment.
D. A compact optical device that connects to switches and transmits and receives data.
Answer: A

NO.1 A consulting company would like to automatically invoke movement, retention and disposal of
data according to defined rules. Which process should they implement?
A. a policy-based management system
B. an object-based management system
C. a content-based management system
D. a file-based management system
Answer: A

HAT-050 Certifiction  

NO.5 What is a Host Bus Adaptor (HBA)?
A. A compact optical device that connects to switches and transmits and receives data.
B. A device that connects multiple computers together to form a network segment.
C. A Fibre Channel interface that connects a computer to a storage network.
D. A non-volatile data storage device.
Answer: C

HAT-050 Assessment   HAT-050 Real  

NO.6 Which two characteristics of a network are regulated by the chosen protocol? (Choose two.)
A. logical topology
B. number of nodes
C. data transfer speed
D. cable types
Answer: C,D

HAT-050 Pass   HAT-050 Voucher  

NO.7 How does a switch enable better network performance than a hub?
A. by delivering each data packet to all devices on the network
B. by connecting two networks together
C. by delivering each data packet only to the intended device
D. by identifying the source of a data packet
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-080
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony & Video v1.0
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
300-080 Pass Guarantee Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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Exam Code: 500-265
Exam Name: Advanced Security Architecture for System Engineers
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
500-265 Test Labs Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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300-080 Passing 

NO.1 Which three items are displayed on the endpoint registration verification page in Cisco VCS?
(Choose three.)
A. endpoint name
B. device type
C. device pool
D. endpoint MAC address
E. device description
F. E.164 address
G. endpoint registration status
Answer: A,B,F

300-080 Passing  

NO.2 When a caller dials 9 plus an external seven-digit number, the caller hears a fast-busy tone after a period of silence. What is causing the silence?
A. The T302 timer is waiting to expire.
B. There is no dial route for 9XXXXXXX on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. The caller dialed the wrong number.
D. The gateway is not dropping the leading 9, and the PSTN fails.
E. The caller does not have the PSTN partition in the CSS.
F. To dial successfully, the caller must enter a Forced Authorization Code.
Answer: A

300-080 Topic   

NO.3 Which tool allows the administrator to analyze call routing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager without physically placing a call?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability tools
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager OS Administration
C. Cisco IOS Gateway debug commands
D. base configuration information for this user that specifies Class of Restriction, Partition, and Calling
Search Space information
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Dialed Number Analyzer
F. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT trace output
Answer: E

300-080 Kit  

NO.4 When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Reporting
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
F. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
Answer: A,D,E

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500-265 Guides   

NO.1 Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application
traffic. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. protection
B. agility
C. scalability
D. time-to-value
E. control
F. flexibility
Answer: E

500-265 Tutorial  

NO.2 Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and
update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from
device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?
A. machine learning
B. file sandboxing
C. file reputation
D. breach hunting
E. attack chain weaving
Answer: E

500-265 Testking  

NO.3 On average, how many pieces of new malware are created every second?
A. 100
B. 20
C. four
D. one
Answer: C

500-265 CBT  

NO.4 Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)
A. URL filtering
B. retrospective security
C. behavioral indications of compromise
D. breach hunting
E. trajectory
F. attack chain weaving
Answer: A,B

NO.5 Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose
three.)
A. the lack of management solutions
B. solutions being pieced together
C. the lack of a cloud solution
D. fragmented solutions
E. missing components
F. security gaps
G. the lack of a firewall
Answer: B,D,F

500-265 Club  

NO.6 Which Cisco Secure Access solution provides centralized policy management to give
administrators more granular control over access authorization?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints
E. Cisco TrustSec
Answer: B

500-265 Effective  

NO.7 Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content?
(Choose two.)
A. breach hunting
B. URL filtering
C. behavioral indications of compromise
D. attack chain weaving
E. retrospective security
F. trajectory
Answer: B,E

500-265 Provider   500-265 Trusted  

NO.9 Which Cisco IPS feature adapts in real time to detect and block intrusions that range from never-before-seen worms to the most sophisticated and subtle criminal attacks?
A. file-type detection
B. automated policy tuning
C. SSL decryption
D. impact assessment
E. intelligent detection
F. user identity tracking
Answer: E

500-265 Review  
Explanation:
Topic 4, Content Security

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Juniper JN0-343 Exam Study Guide,JN0-343 Practice Exams Free

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Exam Code: JN0-343
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
JN0-343 Reliable Test Objectives Total Q&A: 565 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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JN0-343 Success
NO.1 Which two statements describe benefits of the Virtual Chassis? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Chassis is an open standard to allow cross-vendor compatibility.
B. Virtual Chassis can be implemented on all Junos-based devices.
C. Virtual Chassis offers control plane redundancy, which allows the use of NSR.
D. Virtual Chassis allows you to manage multiple switches as a single entity and potentially eliminate
using STP.
Answer: C,D

JN0-343 Quiz  

NO.2 Which two new port roles does RSTP introduce? (Choose two.)
A. alternate
B. designated
C. backup
D. forwarding
Answer: A,C

JN0-343 Authentic  

NO.3 A switch port is sending both tagged and untagged traffic. What is its possible configuration?
A. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/0]
user@switch# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members data;
}
}
}
B. [edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@switch# show
voip {
interface all;
vlan voiceVLAN;
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
}
}
[edit vlans]
user@switch# show
voiceVLAN {
vlan-id 3;
}
}
[edit interfaces]
user@switch# show
ge-0/1/1 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode access;
}
}
}
C. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/0]
user@switch# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members data;
}
}
}
D. {master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/0]
user@switch# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members data;
}
native-vlan-id data;
}
}
Answer: B

JN0-343 Success  

NO.4 Which instance type is used when configuring filter-based forwarding?
A. fbf
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. virtual-router
Answer: C

NO.5 You are implementing a Layer 3 VPN on a Junos device.
Which routing instance type would you use?
A. virtual router
B. forwarding
C. VRF
D. VPLS
Answer: C

NO.6 What is a benefit of the 802.3ad standard?
A. loop detection
B. higher bandwidth
C. strict queuing
D. security
Answer: B

JN0-343 Rate  

NO.7 Which set of BGP attributes is preferred by the Junos OS?
A. MED. 50 AS path: 65512 65512 65512 Local preferencE. 50 Origin: E
B. MED. 100 AS path: 65512 65512 65512 Local preferencE. 100 Origin: I
C. ME 50 AS path: 65512 65512 65512 Local preferencE. 100 Origin: E
D. MED. 100 AS path: 65512 65512 65512 65512 Local preferencE. 100 Origin: I
Answer: B

JN0-343 Flexible  

NO.8 How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet?
A. 32 bytes
B. 48 bytes
C. 64 bytes
D. 24 bytes
Answer: D

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EC-COUNCIL 312-50v9 Valid Study Guide Ppt,712-50 Boot Camp

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Exam Code: 312-50v9
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker v9 Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
312-50v9 Exam Notes Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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Exam Code: 712-50
Exam Name: EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
712-50 Certification Dumps Total Q&A: 345 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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312-50v9 Quality

NO.1 This tool is an 802.11 WEP and WPA-PSK keys cracking program that can recover keys once enough data packets have been captured. It implements the standard FMS attach along with some optimizations like Korek attacks, as well as the PTW attack, thus making the attack much faster compared to other WEP cracking tools. Which of the following tools is being described?
A. Aircrack-ng
B. Airguard
C. Wificracker
D. WLAN-crack
Answer: A

312-50v9 Quality  

NO.2 An attacker has installed a RAT on a host. The attacker wants to ensure that when a user attempts to go to www.MyPersonalBank.com, that the user is directed to a phishing site. Which file does the attacker needto modify?
A. Boot.ini
B. Sudoers
C. Hosts
D. Networks
Answer: C

312-50v9 Top   312-50v9 Upgrade  

NO.3 Which of the following is one of the most effective ways to prevent Cross-site Scripting (XSS) flaws in software applications?
A. Verity access right before allowing access to protected information and UI controls
B. Use digital certificates to authenticate a server prior to sending data
C. Use security policies and procedures to define and implement proper security settings
D. Validate and escape all information sent over to a server
Answer: A

NO.4 Port scanning can be used as part of a technical assessment to determine network vulnerabilities. The TCP XMAS scan is used to identify listening port on the targeted system. If a scanned port is open, what happens?
A. The port will send a SYN.
B. The port will send an ACK.
C. The port will ignore the packets.
D. The port will send an RST.
Answer: C

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712-50 Actualtest 

NO.1 Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?
A. Mobile backup site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. Hot site
Answer: B
ECCouncil 712-50 : Practice Test

NO.2 Creating good security metrics is essential for a CISO. What would be the BEST sources for creating security metrics for baseline defenses coverage?
A. Servers, routers, switches, modem
B. Firewall, anti-virus console, IDS, syslog
C. IDS, syslog, router, switches
D. Firewall, exchange, web server, intrusion detection system (IDS)
Answer: B

712-50 Certified   712-50 Rate  

NO.3 Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates. What is one proven method to account for common elements found within separate regulations
and/or standards?
A. Develop a crosswalk
B. Use the Find function of your word processor
C. Hire a GRC expert
D. Design your program to meet the strictest government standards
Answer: A

712-50 Format   712-50 Actualtest  

NO.4 Which of the following is considered to be an IT governance framework and a supporting toolset that allows for managers to bridge the gap between control requirements, technical issues,
and business risks?
A. Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO)
B. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
C. Payment Card Industry (PCI)
D. Control Objective for Information Technology (COBIT)
Answer: D

NO.5 Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?
A. It uses UDP port 22
B. It is an IPSec protocol.
C. It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.
D. It is a text-based communication protocol.
Answer: B

712-50 Tutorials   712-50 Explanations  

NO.6 Which of the following international standards can be BEST used to define a Risk Management process in an organization?
A. National Institute for Standards and Technology 800-50 (NIST 800-50)
B. International Organization for Standardizations - 27004 (ISO-27004)
C. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
D. International Organization for Standardizations - 27005 (ISO-27005)
Answer: D

NO.7 The formal certification and accreditation process has four primary steps, what are they?
A. Discovery, testing, authorizing, certifying
B. Evaluating, purchasing, testing, authorizing
C. Evaluating, describing, testing and authorizing
D. Auditing, documenting, verifying, certifying
Answer: C

712-50 Testking   712-50 Success  

NO.8 You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?
A. Read
B. Public
C. Administrator
D. Execute
Answer: B

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CompTIA CD0-001 Valid Dumps Sheet,New CD0-001 Test Blueprint

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Exam Code: CD0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA CDIA+ Certification Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
CD0-001 Sample Test Online Total Q&A: 255 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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CD0-001 Hub
NO.1 The Accounts Payable (AP) department is using Multi-functional Devices (MFD) to scan invoices and OCR to automate data entry. They are also imprinting a bar code on the invoices. After scanning, they file the invoices away in boxes by month. What can be concluded from this information?
A. An imaging pilot project is in place.
B. Retention is being managed.
C. A records storage management process is in place.
D. Bar codes are used to track retention.
Answer: C

CD0-001 Explanations  

NO.2 A mainframe-based company would like to make bills available online while continuing to mail
them to the customer. Customers, as well as customer service personnel, will view these bills. What
type of solution is MOST appropriate?
A. Web Content Management System (WCMS)
B. Document Management System (DMS)
C. COLD/Enterprise Report Management (ERM)
D. High volume scan subsystem
Answer: C

CD0-001 Guaranteed   CD0-001 Torrent  

NO.3 A local library keeps many important documents relating to the historical landmarks in town.
The documents consist of blueprints, photographs, and newspaper articles. The library wants to
capture the documents electronically so they can be viewed online. The first concern of the person
capturing the documents would be the:
A. number of file cabinets.
B. age and physical condition of the documents.
C. color of the documents.
D. volume of the documents on file.
Answer: B

CD0-001 Blueprint   CD0-001 Hub  

NO.4 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Small file size
B. Compatibility issues
C. Higher expense
D. Lower quality
Answer: C

NO.5 The consultant is flow charting the workflow of an Accounts Payable (AP) department. Invoices in the AP department are logged and then forwarded to the department that originated the order. What should the consultant be sure to do?
A. Interview the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to get their perspective on this workflow and then tie this feedback into the charting processInterview the department that originated the order; document what they do internally with the invoice and how they hand it off to the AP
B. Contact the vendor who issued the invoice to see what kind of workflow they need to have
C. Speak with Human Resources about the hiring practices for personnel in the AP department
D. Interview the department that originated the order; document what they do internally with the invoice and how they hand it off to the AP
Answer: D

CD0-001 Certification  

NO.6 A mainframe-based company would like to make bills available online while continuing to mail them to the customer. Customers, as well as customer service personnel, will view these bills. What type of solution is MOST appropriate?
A. Document Management System (DMS)
B. Web Content Management System (WCMS)
C. High volume scan subsystem
D. COLD/Enterprise Report Management (ERM)
Answer: D

CD0-001 Flashcards   CD0-001 Download  

NO.7 A trusted third party that issues digital certificates for documents containing digital signatures would be referred to as:
A. INTERNIC
B. An Organization Registration Authority
C. A Certificate Authority
D. A Certificate Standards Committee
Answer: C

CD0-001 Best  

NO.8 When a consultant recommends a scanner to a client, what percentage of the scanned pages need to be two-sided in order to cost justify a duplex scanner?
A. 30-40%
B. 50-60%
C. 10-20%
D. 70-80%
Answer: C

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SAP C_TCRM20_72 Associate Level Test,C-TAW12-740 Latest Dumps Sheet

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Exam Code: C-TAW12-740
Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate- ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.40
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
C-TAW12-740 Valid Test Sims Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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Exam Code: C_TCRM20_72
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - CRM Fundamentals with SAP CRM 7.0 EhP2
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C_TCRM20_72 New Study Questions Sheet Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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C-TAW12-740 Reference
NO.1 You want to translate text in a Web Dynpro. From which should you inherit?
A. CL_WD_COMPONENT_SERVICES
B. CL_WD_COMPONENT_ASSISTANCE
C. CL_WD_CONFIGURATION_MODEL
D. CL WD CONTEXT SERVICES
Answer: B

NO.2 To which of the following must you assign newly created SAP repository objects?
A. Transport task
B. Transport request
C. Package
D. Function group
Answer: C

NO.3 Which statement ends a screen sequence and starts from the initial screen?
A. LEAVE SCREEN
B. SET SCREEN 0
C. LEAVE TO SCREEN 0
D. CALL SCREEN
Answer: B,C

C-TAW12-740 Club  

NO.4 What features are provided by the database interface? (Choose three)
A. Conversion of Open SQL statements from ABAP statements into the corresponding database statements
B. Syntax check of Native SQL commands
C. Database independence of application programs
D. Access to SAP table buffers
E. Data consistency check using foreign key relationships
Answer: A,C,D

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C_TCRM20_72 Well
NO.1 You want to gather information from your customers.
Which option within SAP CRM supports this requirement?
A. Partner Channel Management
B. CRM Web Channel
C. E-mail Response Management System
D. Survey tool
Answer: D

NO.2 There are several Interaction Center (IC) functions that help agents to work effectively within the IC application. Which of the following features are related to agent guidance?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Intent-driven interaction
B. Knowledge article routing
C. Service-level workflows
D. Interactive scripting
Answer: A,D

C_TCRM20_72 Well  

NO.3 Which of the following object types can you define in the CRM Middleware administration console?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Subscriptions
B. Business objects
C. Sites
D. Customizing objects
E. Publications
Answer: A,C,E

C_TCRM20_72 Kit  

NO.4 Business partners created in SAP CRM are not transferred to SAP ERP.
What do you need to do to resolve this CRM-Middleware-related problem?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Check object management in SAP CRM.
B. Check RFC connections between CRM and ERP.
C. Check erroneous BDoc messages in SAP ERP.
D. Check erroneous BDoc messages in SAP CRM.
E. Check number range assignments in SAP ERP and SAP CRM for business partners.
Answer: B,D,E

NO.5 There are several Interaction Center (IC) functions that help agents to work effectively within
the IC application.
Which of the following features are related to agent guidance?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Knowledge article routing
B. Service-level workflows
C. Intent-driven interaction
D. Interactive scripting
Answer: C,D

C_TCRM20_72 Expert  

NO.6 Which of the following object types can you define in the CRM Middleware administration console?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Subscriptions
B. Business objects
C. Customizing objects
D. Sites
E. Publications
Answer: A,D,E

NO.7 Business partners created in SAP CRM are not transferred to SAP ERP.
What do you need to do to resolve this CRM-Middleware-related problem?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Check number range assignments in SAP ERP and SAP CRM for business partners.
B. Check erroneous BDoc messages in SAP ERP.
C. Check RFC connections between CRM and ERP.
D. Check erroneous BDoc messages in SAP CRM.
E. Check object management in SAP CRM.
Answer: A,C,D

C_TCRM20_72 Voucher  

NO.8 Which of the following are standard CRM Web Channel scenarios?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Business to Business (B2B)
B. Business to Partner (B2P)
C. Business to Consumer (B2C)
D. Business to Employee (B2E)
Answer: A,C

C_TCRM20_72 Assessment   C_TCRM20_72 Spot  

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Exam Code: HP0-Y52
Exam Name: Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
New HP0-Y52 Exam Blueprint Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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Exam Code: HPE0-J78
Exam Name: Delta - Designing HPE Enterprise Storage and Backup Solutions
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
HPE0-J78 New Study Questions Pdf Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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HP0-Y52 Resourse
NO.1 Which statement is true about wireless technologies?
A. 802.11n users MIMO technology to improve throughput
B. 802.11a uses the less crowded 2.4 GHz range
C. 802.11a has higher data rates than 802.11g does.
D. 802.11b/g uses an 802.11a-compatible frequency
Answer: A

HP0-Y52 Real  

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
This switch currently assigns all VLANs to Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) instance 0 or the Internal Spanning Tree (IST). Which statement correctly describes interface 21?
A. The interface does not support spanning tree; it is possible that it will introduce a loop in the network.
B. The interface does not forward or accept data traffic, but it is ready to start forwarding if interface 19 fails.
C. The interface is down at Layer 2; it is not available for sending or receiving any traffic.
D. The interface isan edge port but has received Bridge ProtocolDataUnits (BPDUs), so it is disabled.
Answer: D

HP0-Y52 Effective  

NO.3 An HP ProVision switch is operating at its factory default settings.
A network administrator connects the switch to a VLAN with a DHCP server.
The switch-to-switch connection is carrying untagged traffic. The administrator wants to log in to the switch CLI using Telnet. How should the administrator contact the switch and log in?
A. Contact the switch at its default IP address 192.168.1.1/24 and log in with the default password hp.
B. Contact the switch at its DHCP-assigned IP address and log in without entering a password.
C. Contact the switch at its DHCP-assigned IP address and log in with the default passwordhp.
D. Contact the switch at its default IP address 192.168.1.1/24 and log in without entering a password.
Answer: D

HP0-Y52 Measureup   HP0-Y52 Resourse  

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is upgrading the operating system on an HP Comware switch. When copying the new image from a TFTP server to the flash of the switch, the process fails because there is not enough flash to store the new operating system. The new operating system is 3.2MB in size. The administrator then executes the commands shown in the exhibit above. Which action should the administrator perform to solve this problem?
A. Reformat flash, and perform the TFTP transfer again.
B. Execute thedelete old.appcommand, and perform the TFTP transfer again.
C. Execute theclear flashcommand, and perform the TFTP transfer again.
D. Execute thereset recycle-bincommand, and perform the TFTP transfer again.
Answer: A

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HPE0-J78 Feedback

NO.1 A customer is considering adding another storage system and using the federated storage approach. Which advantages can be expected? (Select two.)
A. reduction of power cooling, and environmental impacts
B. multiple management tools
C. improved utilization
D. easier migration
E. workload isolation
Answer: C,D

HPE0-J78 Feedback   HPE0-J78 Top  

NO.2 A customer adds additional SSD drives to an HPE 3PAR StoreServ array configured with Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC). Which action is needed to take advantage of the new drives In AFC?
A. Remove the old AFC configuration and recreate a new one
B. Run the statcache command to enable AFC tor an VVs on the system
C. increase the current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space
D. Run tunesys alter adding the drives to rebalance the system
Answer: A

HPE0-J78 Sure   HPE0-J78 Examinations  

NO.3 A customer requires a solution for scate-out consolidated virtualized applications and virtual desktops. Which HPE Storage solution meets this requirement?
A. HPE Apollo 6000 with StoreVirtual VSA
B. HPE ConvergedSystem 100 for Hosted Desktops
C. HPE ConvergedSystem 500 tor Virtuaiization
D. HPE CorwergedSystem 250-HC StoreVirtual System
Answer: D

HPE0-J78 Book  

NO.4 A customer adds additional SSD drives to an HPE 3PAR SloreServ array configured with Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC). Which action is needed to take advantage or me new drives in AFC?
A. Run the statecache command to enable AFC tor all VVs on the system
B. Run tunesys after adding the drives to rebalance the system.
C. increase me current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space
D. Remove me old AFC configuration and recreate a new one.
Answer: D

NO.5 Which solution should you recommend to an HPE 3PAR StoreServ customer who wants to back up data without a traditional backup application?
A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ File Controller
B. HPE StoreOnce RMC
C. HPE StoreOnce Catalyst
D. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
Answer: B

HPE0-J78 Course  

NO.6 A customer adds additional SSD drives to an HPE 3PAR SloreServ array configured with Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC). Which action is needed to take advantage or me new drives in AFC?
A. Run the statecache command to enable AFC tor all VVs on the system
B. Remove me old AFC configuration and recreate a new one.
C. Run tunesys after adding the drives to rebalance the system.
D. increase me current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space
Answer: B

HPE0-J78 Examinations   HPE0-J78 Technical  

NO.7 A customer requires a solution for scate-out consolidated virtualized applications and virtual desktops. Which HPE Storage solution meets this requirement?
A. HPE ConvergedSystem 500 tor Virtuaiization
B. HPE CorwergedSystem 250-HC StoreVirtual System
C. HPE ConvergedSystem 100 for Hosted Desktops
D. HPE Apollo 6000 with StoreVirtual VSA
Answer: B

HPE0-J78 Relevant  

NO.8 A customer is considering adding another storage system and using the federated storage approach.Which advantages can be expected? (Select two.)
A. easier migration
B. improved utilization
C. reduction of power cooling, and environmental impacts
D. workload isolation
E. multiple management tools
Answer: A,B

HPE0-J78 Actualtest  

NO.9 A customer requires a solution for scate-out consolidated virtualized applications and virtual desktops. Which HPE Storage solution meets this requirement?
A. HPE Apollo 6000 with StoreVirtual VSA
B. HPE CorwergedSystem 250-HC StoreVirtual System
C. HPE ConvergedSystem 500 tor Virtuaiization
D. HPE ConvergedSystem 100 for Hosted Desktops
Answer: B

HPE0-J78 Latest   HPE0-J78 Certified  

NO.10 A customer adds additional SSD drives to an HPE 3PAR SloreServ array configured with Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC). Which action is needed to take advantage or me new drives in AFC?
A. increase me current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space
B. Remove me old AFC configuration and recreate a new one.
C. Run the statecache command to enable AFC tor all VVs on the system
D. Run tunesys after adding the drives to rebalance the system.
Answer: B

HPE0-J78 Labs  

NO.11 A customer adds additional SSD drives to an HPE 3PAR StoreServ array configured with Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC). Which action is needed to take advantage of the new drives In AFC?
A. Remove the old AFC configuration and recreate a new one
B. Run tunesys alter adding the drives to rebalance the system
C. increase the current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space
D. Run the statcache command to enable AFC tor an VVs on the system
Answer: A

HPE0-J78 Reference  

NO.12 Which solution should you recommend to an HPE 3PAR StoreServ customer who wants to back up data without a traditional backup application?
A. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
B. HPE 3PAR StoreServ File Controller
C. HPE StoreOnce RMC
D. HPE StoreOnce Catalyst
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 303-200
Exam Name: 303-200: LPIC-3 Exam 303: Security, version 2.0
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Exam Code: 101-400
Exam Name: LPI Level 1 Exam 101, Junior Level Linux Certification, Part 1 of 2
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101-400 Reliable Test Bootcamp Materials Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
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303-200 Complete

NO.1 Which of the following statements describes the purpose of ndpmon?
A. it monitors the network for neighbor discovery messages from new IPv6 hosts and routers
B. It monitors log files for failed login attempts in order to block traffic from offending network nodes
C. It monitors the network for IPv4 nodes that have not yet migrated to IPv6.
D. it monitors remote hosts by periodically sending echo requests to them.
E. it monitors the availability of a network link by querying network interfaces.
Answer: A

303-200 Interactive   303-200 Edition 

NO.2 Which of the following types can be specified within the Linux Audit system? (Choose THREE correct answers)
A. System call rules
B. Console rules
C. Network connection rules
D. Control rules
E. File system rules
Answer: A,D,E

303-200 Complete 

NO.3 Which of the following commands makes the contents of the eCryptfs encrypted directory /Private available to the user?
A. ecryptfs.mount
B. ecryptfsclient
C. ecryptfs-manage-di rectory
D. decryptfs
E. ecryptfs-mount-private
Answer: E

NO.4 Which of the following statements are true regarding the certificate of a Root CA? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. It must contain an X509v3 Authority extension.
B. It does not include the private key of the CA
C. It has an infinite lifetime and never expires.
D. It must contain a host name as the common name.
E. It is a self-signed certificate.
Answer: A,B,E

NO.5 Which of the following statements describes the purpose of ndpmon?
A. it monitors the network for neighbor discovery messages from new IPv6 hosts and routers
B. it monitors remote hosts by periodically sending echo requests to them.
C. It monitors log files for failed login attempts in order to block traffic from offending network nodes
D. it monitors the availability of a network link by querying network interfaces.
E. It monitors the network for IPv4 nodes that have not yet migrated to IPv6.
Answer: A

NO.6 Which of the following statements are true regarding the certificate of a Root CA? (Choose
TWO correct answers.)
A. It must contain an X509v3 Authority extension.
B. It must contain a host name as the common name.
C. It has an infinite lifetime and never expires.
D. It is a self-signed certificate.
E. It does not include the private key of the CA
Answer: A,D,E

303-200 Cheap 

NO.7 Which option of the openvpn command should be used to ensure that ephemeral keys are not written to the swap space?
A. --root-swap
B. --keys-no-swap
C. --mlock
D. --no-swap
Answer: C

303-200 Materials 

NO.8 Which of the following commands makes the contents of the eCryptfs encrypted directory/Private available to the user?
A. ecryptfs-mount-private
B. ecryptfs.mount
C. decryptfs
D. ecryptfsclient
E. ecryptfs-manage-di rectory
Answer: A

303-200 Forum

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101-400 Simulation 

NO.1 Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system's hostname
Answer: A,D

101-400 Simulation 

NO.2 Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. init 1
B. telinit 1
C. shutdown -single now
D. shutdown -R 1 now
E. runlevel 1
Answer: A,B

101-400 Preview   101-400 Exams 

NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot sequence?
Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg

NO.4 Which of the following options for the kernel's command line changes the systemd boot target to rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
B. systemd.default=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.target=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Answer: E

NO.5 Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Answer: A

101-400 Score 

NO.6 Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Linux kernel version
B. The system's hostname
C. Timezone
D. Boot device order
E. Hardware configuration
Answer: D,E

101-400 CBT   101-400 Materials 

NO.7 What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /boot/init
B. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
C. /proc/sys/kernel/init
D. /lib/init.so
E. /sbin/init
Answer: E

NO.8 Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -r "rebooting"
B. telinit 0
C. telinit 6
D. shutdown -k now "rebooting"
E. shutdown -r now
Answer: C,E

101-400 Tests   

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Exam Code: ITIL
Exam Name: ITIL V3 Foundation
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Last Update: 02-23,2017

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ITIL Actualtest 

NO.1 Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Inputs and outputs
B. Functions
C. Roles
D. Metrics
Answer: B

ITIL Actualtest  

NO.2 The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. Any disruptionto service whether planned or unplanned
C. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
D. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
Answer: D

ITIL Trusted  

NO.3 The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management?
A. Knowledge
B. Governance
C. Data
D. Information
Answer: A

ITIL Pass4Sure  

NO.4 Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2.Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 2 only
B. Neither of the above
C. 1 only
D. Both of the above
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HPE0-J80
Exam Name: Delta - Architecting Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
HPE0-J80 Latest Exam Camp Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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Exam Code: HPE6-A15
Exam Name: Aruba Certified Clearpass Professional 6.5
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
HPE6-A15 Exam Questions And Answers Fee Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

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HPE0-J80 Version 

NO.1 Which additional value should you focus on during a solution presentation for an HPE 3PAR StoreServ system using 384 TB cMLC SSD drives to appeal to the interests of the company's CFO?
A. savings of the solution when compared to 192 TB cMLC SSD
B. performance gain when compared to 192 TB cLMC SSD
C. savings of the solution which approaches the cost for 15k SAS drives
D. savings of the solution when compared to a similar configuration using 10k SAS drives
Answer: D

HPE0-J80 Version  

NO.2 A storage architect is reviewing customer as-built documentation and a proposed design for an HPE 3PAR StoreServ deployment. The array must be installed in a co-location facility in supplied and managed racks. The storage architect has determined that service clearances and power are adequate. The proposed design is storage-centric and will require two racks to accommodate all
the disk enclosures. What should the storage architect consider when validating the bill of materials?
A. The correct number of SAS Active Optical Cables (AOC) are required
B. Expansion is only supported in HPE racks
C. The correct number of Fiber Channel Cables are required
D. The correct number of infiniBand cables are required
Answer: A

NO.3 HOTSPOT
The exhibit shows the 4types of StoreVirtual Network RAID 0.10.10+1 and 10+2. A customer has three sites and needs a copy of data at each site. Click on the Network RAID level that you should
recommended.
Answer:

NO.4 DRAG DROP
When designing an HPE StoreOnce POC with Catalyst using Symantec NetBackup you need to know
which products require licenses.
Match each product to its licensing requirements.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1 : License needed Box 2: No License needed Box 3: No License needed Box 4: License needed

NO.5 A storage architect is reviewing customer as-built documentation and a proposed design for an
HPE 3PAR StoreServ deployment. The array must be installed in a co-location facility in facility
supplied and managed racks. The storage architect has determined that service clearances and power
are adequate. The proposed design is storage-centric and will require two racks to accommodate all
the disk enclosures.
What should the storage architect consider when validating the bill of materials?
A. The correct number of SAS Active Optical Cables (AOC) are required
B. The correct number of Fiber Channel Cables are required
C. Expansion is only supported in HPE racks
D. The correct number of infiniBand cables are required
Answer: A

NO.6 What should be considered before using jumbo Frames for ISCSI network traffic? (Select two)
A. They improve random I/O workload
B. Large sequential read and write workloads can benefit from Jumbo Frames
C. They improve performance of latency sensitive workloads
D. They can have a negative impact on latency-sensitive data
E. Large sequential read and write workload will not benefit from Jumbo Frames
Answer: B,C

HPE0-J80 Braindump  

NO.7 HOTSPOT
The exhibit shows the 4types of StoreVirtual Network RAID 0.10.10+1 and 10+2. A customer has
three sites and needs a copy of data at each site. Click on the Network RAID level that you should
recommended.
Answer:

NO.8 Which additional value should you focus on during a solution presentation for an HPE 3PAR
StoreServ system using 384 TB cMLC SSD drives to appeal to the interests of the company's CFO?
A. performance gain when compared to 192 TB cLMC SSD
B. savings of the solution which approaches the cost for 15k SAS drives
C. savings of the solution when compared to 192 TB cMLC SSD
D. savings of the solution when compared to a similar configuration using 10k SAS drives
Answer: D

HPE0-J80 Tests   HPE0-J80 Simulations  

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HPE6-A15 Leader 

NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the information shown, what is the purpose of using [Time Source] for authorization?
A. to check how tang it has been since the last web login authentication
B. to check whether the MAC address status is unknown in the endpoints table
C. to check whether the MAC address status is known in the endpoints table
D. to check whether the MAC address is in the MAC Caching repository
Answer: B

HPE6-A15 Leader   HPE6-A15 Resources  

NO.2 Which authorization servers are supported by ClearPass? (Select two)
A. Aruba Controller
B. Aruba Mobility Access Switch
C. Cisco Controller
D. LDAP server
E. Active Directory
Answer: C,E

HPE6-A15 Reference  

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
A user logged in to the Self-Service Portal as shown.
What do the traffic received and sent statistics present?
A. the total amount of traffic the gust transmitted after account expiration, as seen through RADIUS
accounting messages sent from the NAD to ClearPass
B. the total amount of traffic the gust transmitted, as seen through RADIUS CoA packets from the
ClearPass
C. the total amount of traffic the gust transmitted, as seen through RADIUS accounting message sent
from the NAD to ClearPass
D. the total amount of traffic the gust transmitted to ClearPass, as seen through RADIUS accounting
messages from the NAD TO ClearPass
E. the total amount of traffic the gust transmitted, as seen through RADIUS CoA packets from the client to ClearPass
Answer: C

HPE6-A15 Flashcards  

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit. An AD users department attribute value is configured as "QA". The user authenticates from a laptop running MAC OS X Which role is assigned to the user in ClearPass?
A. Remote Employee
B. [Guest]
C. Executive
D. HR Local
E. lOS Device
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CD0-001

Exam Name: CompTIA CDIA+ Certification Exam
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CD0-001 Exam Study Solutions Total Q&A: 255 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 02-23,2017

CD0-001 Latest Test Cram Sheet Detail: CD0-001 Exam Study Solutions

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NO.1 A company needs to capture 2,000 outgoing e-mails per month. The e-mails are 30 KB each in size. What is the annual storage space required?
A. 703 MB
B. 590 MB
C. 354 MB
D. 59 MB
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Accounts Payable (AP) department is using Multi-functional Devices (MFD) to scan
invoices and OCR to automate data entry. They are also imprinting a bar code on the invoices. After
scanning, they file the invoices away in boxes by month. What can be concluded from this
information?
A. A records storage management process is in place.
B. Retention is being managed.
C. An imaging pilot project is in place.
D. Bar codes are used to track retention.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A large volume of surveys are distributed, returned, and scanned. These surveys have text
boxes and
check boxes. Which is the best technology for capturing these documents, indexing them, and
extracting the data?
A. Forms processing
B. Workflow
C. Document Imaging
D. OCR/ICR
Answer: B

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NO.4 A trusted third party that issues digital certificates for documents containing digital signatures
would be referred to as:
A. INTERNIC
B. A Certificate Standards Committee
C. A Certificate Authority
D. An Organization Registration Authority
Answer: C

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